Originally Posted by COMICFILMEXPERT
So explain to me how in "Batman: Year One" Bruce goes from bleeding in his father's study to attacking three punks in the full-on Batsuit...I mean Bruce was starting up as Batman THEN as well as in "Begins". Why didn't Miller explain the suit to us?
Believe me I DO understand...completely.
But Batman Begin's is not an adaption from Frank Millers Year One.. So why would it matter if Frank Miller didn't describe it, but Chris Nolan did?