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Old 11-20-2012, 11:37 PM   #59
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Join Date: Jun 2011
Location: UK
Posts: 11,147
Default Re: Bane or the Joker?

Originally Posted by MAKAVELI25 View Post
My original argument was whether the film EXPLICTLY showed any reason for Bane attacking Gotham/Bruce in particular without Talia being a part of it. I think we can safely conclude that no, no other reason is explicitly shown and any further interpretation is on the part of the viewer. Now Domino, a poster who I consider one of the best on the forum though we agree on nothing, states that though Talia is the only motivation shown, this doesn't preclude anything else from being a motive. This is a point I never argued, reading over my previous posts will show that all I argued was whether there were any other motives SHOWN. So yes, he is using an "absence of evidence/evidence of absence" argument which most would agree is often a last resort.
No other reason is explicitly shown, nor is the reason that you provided explicitly shown. I think you misread "Domino" (sic) here. He is simply pointing out the lack of evidence for your assertion. That's not a fallacy, its a challenge. It isn't an argument from ignorance or negation, its an observation that the burden of proof rests with you to prove what you are asserting.

Originally Posted by CharlesConceptz View Post
Im done. Im leaving this website. I promise i will not be spiderman or attempt to be. I have a ral careerr to fulfill. Please don NOT tell anyone about this. I would appreciate if you all kept this a secret.
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