Lyndon Johnson famously stated (I paraphrase) that with the institution of the Civil Rights bill, he had "lost the South" for the Democrats for years to come.
This seems to be supported by current stats: one 2012 study claims that "since 1976, Democrats have never won white voters. Jimmy Carter, a Southerner, came the closest in 1976, winning 48% of it."
Now, the same study also argues that the total white vote has become less numerically imposing in recent years, but the question remains as to why so much of the "white vote" goes to the Republican party.
Is it only, like Johnson said, due to perceived racial loyalties? Or does it have to do with other factors relating to the economic, foreign policy, etc? But if any of these factors were writ in stone as it were, then no Democratic president could ever win even the 40-percent average for the white vote.
What skews the vote so heavily toward Republicans?
This seems to be supported by current stats: one 2012 study claims that "since 1976, Democrats have never won white voters. Jimmy Carter, a Southerner, came the closest in 1976, winning 48% of it."
Now, the same study also argues that the total white vote has become less numerically imposing in recent years, but the question remains as to why so much of the "white vote" goes to the Republican party.
Is it only, like Johnson said, due to perceived racial loyalties? Or does it have to do with other factors relating to the economic, foreign policy, etc? But if any of these factors were writ in stone as it were, then no Democratic president could ever win even the 40-percent average for the white vote.
What skews the vote so heavily toward Republicans?