Tanin
Vladeck
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- Jan 13, 2004
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Prove to me that love exists! BRING ON DA SCIENCE!
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Prove to me that love exists! BRING ON DA SCIENCE!
Christians have interpreted Jesus' use of wine as a reason to allow wine during communion. Sacrifices are now obsolete in Christianity, thus the salt thing is well...pointless. A lot of the dietary restrictions (touching unclean animals like pigs and allowing to eat meat that is a bit more rare) had been lifted by Jesus. Some interpret the Book of Revelations of markings on Jesus when he returns as a sign that tattoos are okay. The mixing of fabrics (which had a more symbolic meaning) was done away with Jesus believing that Jews and Gentiles can mix together. And of course he dealt with the poor (who would often have things like unkempt hair).Fair enough, my mistake. However, did he speak about each one or just said to ignore everything in that part?
I didn't write the damn thing.Why is it a sin?
Love is measured in pie, everybody knows that![]()
Next we're gonna debate how you quantify love... just wait.
So because the word "marriage" isn't in there it makes a difference?He's saying Homosexuality is wrong.To read it as anything else is the worst case of eisgesis I've ever seen.Point to the word "marriage" in either of those passages.
I'm well aware.It's usually the first line of defense when folks want to twist the Word into saying what they want to hear."It's not translated right."Yeah you have no idea how translating things works, do you?
Christians have interpreted Jesus' use of wine as a reason to allow wine during communion. Sacrifices are now obsolete in Christianity, thus the salt thing is well...pointless. A lot of the dietary restrictions (touching unclean animals like pigs and allowing to eat meat that is a bit more rare) had been lifted by Jesus. Some interpret the Book of Revelations of markings on Jesus when he returns as a sign that tattoos are okay. The mixing of fabrics (which had a more symbolic meaning) was done away with Jesus believing that Jews and Gentiles can mix together. And of course he dealt with the poor (who would often have things like unkempt hair).
So because the word "marriage" isn't in there it makes a difference?He's saying Homosexuality is wrong.To read it as anything else is the worst case of eisgesis I've ever seen.
I'm well aware.It's usually the first line of defense when folks want to twist the Word into saying what they want to hear."It's not translated right."
So that means all of the rules about what's acceptable to eat and wear would still apply as well?BTW,Jesus never addressed homosexuality directly,simply because He was preaching predominately to Jews who were likely to obey the commands in the Torah.There was no way He was undermining the Laws of Moses.
Matt 17 Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. 18 For truly I tell you, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished.
Paul under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit,further clarified the issue beyond the shadow of a doubt in Romans. (since the sin was more common in Rome.)
Of course it makes a difference. It's saying that the act of two men having sex (and not homosexuality in general, just two men engaging in sexual acts, and it doesn't mention two women having sex at all) is wrong. It does not, however, say that two men getting married or two women getting married is wrong. The Bible does not at any point mention gay marriage.
I understand and agree. I was only pointing out the passages in question couldn't be held up to the excuse that their meaning was misinterpreted.Translation is a nuanced and complicated thing. You very often don't have words that translate directly to other words in another language, and when you're translating old texts you have to take the historical context and the way words and meaning has evolved over time into consideration. And two different translations of a single word in a passage can completely change the meaning of the rest of the passage. A lot of translation is interpretation and there's a lot of room for debate in regards to meaning, especially when the text in question is this old, and especially when it's already gone through several translations before getting to us.
So that means all of the rules about what's acceptable to eat and wear would still apply as well?
I don't know how I feel about this and I don't want to offer an opinion either. I just want to say this thread is very fascinating.Not sure how I feel about this, on the one hand I think the LGBT community should be treated as equals and with respect but on the other hand if some judge tells me I have to DJ a party I don't want to or pay fines that goes against everything America stands for
So basically,what you're saying is according to the Bible, two men (and I suppose women?) can get married,just not have sex?That is the most strained line of reasoning I've ever seen.(and I've unfortunately seen plenty.)It's a blatant case of trying to take something that's clearly being stated,and trying to have the meaning hinge on a technicality.
The Bible has communicated homosexuality as a sin consistently,and constantly. In fact,homosexuality has been shown in a consistently negative light throughout all of scripture.It is virtually impossible to interpret it as a condoned behavior.
understand and agree. I was only pointing out the passages in question couldn't be held up to the excuse that their meaning was misinterpreted.