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The Dark Knight Is the Joker legally insane?

I think jokers ''insanity'' was explained in the movie as him being an extreme type of anarchist. Despite what the joker says, he does have a plan and is a schemer, wasnt his ultimate plan to create chaos and show the people who they really are inside? You see religious groups blow bombs every day so in a way, doesnt joker have his own ''religion'' in his actions ? He's a murderer but i dont think he's crazy, only eccentric. Batman is equally insane as the joker, they just show it off differently.
''I'm not a monster,im just ahead of the curve''
 
I think jokers ''insanity'' was explained in the movie as him being an extreme type of anarchist. Despite what the joker says, he does have a plan and is a schemer, wasnt his ultimate plan to create chaos and show the people who they really are inside? You see religious groups blow bombs every day so in a way, doesnt joker have his own ''religion'' in his actions ? He's a murderer but i dont think he's crazy, only eccentric. Batman is equally insane as the joker, they just show it off differently.
''I'm not a monster,im just ahead of the curve''

I think his ultimate plan was to

#1 Kill Batman but then

#2 changed to making the Batman break his rule and showing Batman who he was deep down; the other chaos and craziness served as an added bonus.

But yes I agree with everything else you said.
 
I think his ultimate plan was to

#1 Kill Batman but then

#2 changed to making the Batman break his rule and showing Batman who he was deep down; the other chaos and craziness served as an added bonus.

But yes I agree with everything else you said.


You're both right.

The Joker is an expert planner indeed. But he's also very known for all the spontanious action he makes up as he go along.

It's the mixture of these two abilities that make him so unpredictable and dangerous. The Joker always comes prepared, but if something better comes along that (to quote the man) "Fit into the plan", then he's prepared to change on the flip of a coin hehe :cwink:
 
I'd think being a Sociopath a form of insanity. It means something just isn't working inside that brain of his that would ordinarily prevent him from doing heinous things.
 
I'd think being a Sociopath a form of insanity. It means something just isn't working inside that brain of his that would ordinarily prevent him from doing heinous things.


I'll have to disagree.

Because a Sociopath does not care; does not mean that they WILL do.

Making sense?

I'm trying to say that; his lack of compassion and caring for life doesn't equate to him having to want to kill people. He doesn't kill people because he doesn't care.


I don't care about Hunters; but, I'm not killing them; but, if one died I wouldn't care.


So I don't think his lack of compassion makes him do; but, rather keeps him from feeling remorse.


did that make any sense?
 
Legal insanity is an affirmative defense meaning you stipulate that you caused the crime but by meeting the test for insanity you didn't have the requisite mens rea to be charged for the crime.

A lot of people here are parroting what the psychologist said on the history channel's pyschology of the Dark Knight. He only explained one test, the irresistible impulse test for insanity. But there are 4 legal insanity tests which vary depending on the jurisdiction. Joker being subject to the M'Naghten test for insanity might have an interesting outcome contrary to the irresistible impulse test . The M'Naghten test was used in the Andrea Yates trial which resulted in her being found not guilty b/c of insanity. This was the case of the woman who drowned her children b/c she believed Satan was inside her and she was trying to save them from hell.

PS. Now before some eager poster jumps down my throat note that I said might have a different outcome. In other words, it would probably be litigated not necessarily that he meets the test for insanity.
 
"Unlike you an I, the Joker seems to have no control over the sensory information he's receiving from the outside world."

"We may actually be looking at some kind of super-sanity here."

"We're not even sure if he can be properly defined as insane."

Arkham Asylum
 
Hey a fellow NYCer

You're quotes are good; but, can they apply to TDK Joker?


I think so; but, Be wary of using comics to define Nolan's characters.
 
As a criminal psychologist, the answer is no. The Joker is NOT legally insane.



That sentence is the legal definition of sanity. To be deemed legally insane, you must be unable to understand the nature and quality of their actions and know the difference between right and wrong.

1. Nature and quality of his actions; the Joker understands that he's committing murder. He understands that people will die.
2. Right and wrong; the Joker not only knows the difference, he deliberately SCORNS it and strives to take "right" people and make them do "wrong" things.

Is the Joker a sociopath? Possibly. That's a longer discussion than I'm prepared for at 6am, but the key point here is that sociopaths are not legally insane. Antisocial personality disorder is a mental disorder, but so is depression, bulimia, gender dysphoria, etc. Not everything that qualifies as a mental disorder meets the criteria for insanity. Ted Bundy was a sociopath. He went to prison, not an institution, because the absence of empathy does not preclude you from understanding that you're committing a crime. You don't have to agree that right is right and wrong is wrong to acknowledge that society upholds certain things as "right" and certain things as "wrong." People like Bundy and the Joker are fully aware that they're doing things that are legally and morally "wrong." They don't care, and not caring isn't enough to be deemed insane. You have to be unable to comprehend the existence of those moral standards.

I would argue (based I will admit, on my favorite Joker stories. I'm well aware that other interpretations are just as valid) that it isn't simply that he doesn't care, but that the reality of his actions doesn't register to him as real. He understands the consequences of his actions, but in the way you or I understand a work of fiction. It may be "real" to him in the sense that it has meaning to him, but it doesn't register to him that the things he does matter. Not out of apathy, but because the way he perceives reality is fundamentally different from ours and very much detached from reality.
 
Like the above poster has said the Joker has no since of reality, in a way he is terrorist. He knows the crimes and the actions he commit will harm or possibly kill people but he continues and doesn't care about the consequences . Than you have to take into account he doesn't care about his own life, he doesn't fear anything not even death. He may not be legally insane to some psychologist, but to me he seems to be.
 
I'd think being a Sociopath a form of insanity. It means something just isn't working inside that brain of his that would ordinarily prevent him from doing heinous things.

You're wrong. I'm not debating whether the Joker is "crazy," because that's a subjective term, but sociopathy is NOT a form of insanity by medical or legal definition. It's a mental disorder, like depression et al., but it does not qualify. To my knowledge, no one in the United States has ever been acquitted with an antisocial personality disorder defense, BECAUSE it doesn't qualify as insanity by any reliable definition. Whether the Joker is "crazy" or "nuts" is a broader topic, but sociopaths aren't considered insane by the law or medicine that defi ne them.

A lot of people here are parroting what the psychologist said on the history channel's pyschology of the Dark Knight. He only explained one test, the irresistible impulse test for insanity. But there are 4 legal insanity tests which vary depending on the jurisdiction. Joker being subject to the M'Naghten test for insanity might have an interesting outcome contrary to the irresistible impulse test . The M'Naghten test was used in the Andrea Yates trial which resulted in her being found not guilty b/c of insanity. This was the case of the woman who drowned her children b/c she believed Satan was inside her and she was trying to save them from hell.

I haven't seen that program, so I'm not sure if you're saying they considered him "insane" or "sane" by the irresistible impulse test. I will say, though, that this test is almost NEVER used. I'm not sure why it would be brought up at all. Even then, I think it's even less convincing to apply that test to him, because he picks and chooses when he kills someone and when he doesn't. He's very much in control of his actions for most of the film. Someone who failed the irresistible impulse test wouldn't be able to function in the calm, calculated manner he does. They would be severely and visibly disturbed by the inability to resist their urges. They couldn't calmly sit down at a table and convey a plan, plan an elaborate bank heist, coordinate Harvey and Rachel's predicaments, organize the reverse-hostage crisis at the end with the clowns and doctors. He is much, much too rational for an individual who would qualify for that test.

As far as the M'Naghten rules go, again, I'm not sure which insanity test you're saying might deem him possibly insane, but there isn't much here either. You reference Andrea Yates, but she had a history of wild, psychotic, delirious, and delusional episodes prior to the deaths of her children. She was on Haldol, a very powerful anti-psychotic usually meant for schizophrenics, and killed them after the prescription was discontinued. As far as the actual deaths go, she was suffering from command hallucinations (in the form of the voice of Satan) at the time. The Joker isn't, to our knowledge, reacting to internal stimuli, or acting in a manner where he's lost complete control of his mind or body. He has a twisted view of the world and may think of himself and Batman as on another level than the rest of society, but he isn't suffering from an overt psychosis that would render him insane by the standard of the M'Naghten Rules, the way that Andrea Yates was.

Disease of the mind - Doesn't apply, the Joker doesn't have a physical disease (i.e. epilepsy) that alters his brain and forces him to commit crimes. Chemical imbalances like depression don't qualify under this rule.

Nature and quality - I went through this up above, but he knows that he's stabbing people and that they're going to die. Therefore, this rule doesn't apply.

Right and wrong - The Joker knows it's against the law (and conventional moral standards) to kill people. He does it anyway. He likes violating it. Again, this is a matter of understanding that your actions are against the law. Simply deciding not to believe in the law or reject conventional morals isn't enough, or every criminal would be "insane." This rule doesn't apply.

Specific intent - Doesn't apply, refers to committing an act (i.e. setting off a bomb) without the "intent" to commit another (i.e. murder, because someone died in the explosion). He knows people will die.

I would argue (based I will admit, on my favorite Joker stories. I'm well aware that other interpretations are just as valid) that it isn't simply that he doesn't care, but that the reality of his actions doesn't register to him as real. He understands the consequences of his actions, but in the way you or I understand a work of fiction. It may be "real" to him in the sense that it has meaning to him, but it doesn't register to him that the things he does matter. Not out of apathy, but because the way he perceives reality is fundamentally different from ours and very much detached from reality.

It's an interesting discussion! I hope I'm not coming off as adversarial at any point here. I understand where you're coming from; IIRC, the Joker has suggested that he and Batman are on another level of reality than everyone else. It's an interesting hypothesis. I think it applies more to the comics than the film, IMHO, because I strongly get the feeling that it's more of a "game" to him in TDK than it is "make-believe." What you're suggesting - that he's not able to recognize that his acts are real - could muddy the waters and give rise to questions about how crazy he is from a non-medical/legal standpoint. It's ultimately still not legal insanity at this point in time, however, because the current insanity "tests" don't have any criteria that would include that defense. The closest thing I can think of to what you're suggesting is depersonalization/derealization, which quite a few criminals have exhibited to some extent, but not received an not-guilty-by-reason-of-insanity verdict for before. A lot of the Nazis claimed that they lost touch with a sense of self and had a distorted sense of reality, which is probably true to an extent, but that in itself hasn't been medically or legally held to constitute insanity. At this point in time, where the law is concerned, if you don't have a physical brain disorder, know that your actions will cause a death/rape/whatever, and know that it's legally a crime, you are legally sane, even if you claim it took place in an alternate/fictional reality.

Like the above poster has said the Joker has no since of reality, in a way he is terrorist. He knows the crimes and the actions he commit will harm or possibly kill people but he continues and doesn't care about the consequences . Than you have to take into account he doesn't care about his own life, he doesn't fear anything not even death. He may not be legally insane to some psychologist, but to me he seems to be.

I'm not arguing whether he's "crazy." The measure of "crazy" is subjective. The original question is "is he legally insane?" The answer is no, because this is defined very precisely. You're saying "He knows the crimes and actions he commits will harm or possibly kill people," and then adding a "but." There is no legal but. That is the legal definition of sanity - the ability to distinguish right from wrong and know what you're doing at the time that you're doing it. "Not caring" or "not fearing" does not constitute insanity. If it did, almost every serial killer in existence would be legally insane. You mention terrorists, which is a good analogy, but Osama Bin Laden, Al Qaeda, et al, have NO chance of ever being deemed legally insane because they know exactly what they were doing. I think a lot of the people saying "he kills people and doesn't care" are confusing "legal insanity," which has a clear legal definition, and "he's insane, man," which is basically "crazy," an extremely subjective concept.
 
I haven't seen that program, so I'm not sure if you're saying they considered him "insane" or "sane" by the irresistible impulse test. I will say, though, that this test is almost NEVER used. I'm not sure why it would be brought up at all. Even then, I think it's even less convincing to apply that test to him, because he picks and chooses when he kills someone and when he doesn't. He's very much in control of his actions for most of the film. Someone who failed the irresistible impulse test wouldn't be able to function in the calm, calculated manner he does. They would be severely and visibly disturbed by the inability to resist their urges. They couldn't calmly sit down at a table and convey a plan, plan an elaborate bank heist, coordinate Harvey and Rachel's predicaments, organize the reverse-hostage crisis at the end with the clowns and doctors. He is much, much too rational for an individual who would qualify for that test.

As far as the M'Naghten rules go, again, I'm not sure which insanity test you're saying might deem him possibly insane, but there isn't much here either. You reference Andrea Yates, but she had a history of wild, psychotic, delirious, and delusional episodes prior to the deaths of her children. She was on Haldol, a very powerful anti-psychotic usually meant for schizophrenics, and killed them after the prescription was discontinued. As far as the actual deaths go, she was suffering from command hallucinations (in the form of the voice of Satan) at the time. The Joker isn't, to our knowledge, reacting to internal stimuli, or acting in a manner where he's lost complete control of his mind or body. He has a twisted view of the world and may think of himself and Batman as on another level than the rest of society, but he isn't suffering from an overt psychosis that would render him insane by the standard of the M'Naghten Rules, the way that Andrea Yates was.

Disease of the mind - Doesn't apply, the Joker doesn't have a physical disease (i.e. epilepsy) that alters his brain and forces him to commit crimes. Chemical imbalances like depression don't qualify under this rule.

Nature and quality - I went through this up above, but he knows that he's stabbing people and that they're going to die. Therefore, this rule doesn't apply.

Right and wrong - The Joker knows it's against the law (and conventional moral standards) to kill people. He does it anyway. He likes violating it. Again, this is a matter of understanding that your actions are against the law. Simply deciding not to believe in the law or reject conventional morals isn't enough, or every criminal would be "insane." This rule doesn't apply.

Specific intent - Doesn't apply, refers to committing an act (i.e. setting off a bomb) without the "intent" to commit another (i.e. murder, because someone died in the explosion). He knows people will die.

Herein lies the difference b/w the way a clinical psychologist thinks and the way an attorney thinks. You have presented the facts in a manner where Joker does not meet a legal insanity test. The defense attorney will do the exact opposite. The jury decides who was more convincing.

It is interesting to note that your utter persistence in claiming Joker is not legally insane is one reason why "experts" are regularly discredited on the witness stand. Its much easier to discredit someone when they vehemently take one side of an issue as opposed to taking a neutral stance.
 
His traits actually better fit that of a psychopath moreso than a sociopath.

And there is a difference...
 
Herein lies the difference b/w the way a clinical psychologist thinks and the way an attorney thinks. You have presented the facts in a manner where Joker does not meet a legal insanity test. The defense attorney will do the exact opposite. The jury decides who was more convincing.

It is interesting to note that your utter persistence in claiming Joker is not legally insane is one reason why "experts" are regularly discredited on the witness stand. Its much easier to discredit someone when they vehemently take one side of an issue as opposed to taking a neutral stance.

I have to disagree. I have a psychology background, yes, but I'm approaching this from a criminal law standpoint. Everything I said about the M'Naghten rules is straight out of criminal law books and court cases. I am persistent in saying that he isn't legally insane, yes, because the closest thing to a "disorder" he has is a possible sociopathic diagnosis, which has been categorically and flatly refused by the courts as failing to meet the standard of insanity. Whether a defense attorney could get him off is a separate issue. I'm not talking about verdict probabilities, I'm only looking at the legal definitions of insanity and applying them to a fictional character. This isn't a case where he's schizophrenic, dissociative identity, etc and the defense attorney is arguing x and the prosecutor is arguing y - he doesn't a mental disorder that would be legally eligible for insanity. So I'm not sure how that analogy applies. If you think he meets the M'Naghten or another set of criteria for legal insanity, I'd love to hear your perspective, but I think I've been fairly objective here in presenting a factual assessment. We're talking more about a Ted Bundy type here (someone whose mental disorder (antisocial personality disorder) doesn't meet the legal insanity criteria) than an Andrea Yates (someone whose mental disorder (psychosis, not otherwise specified, and post-partum depression) might.

His traits actually better fit that of a psychopath moreso than a sociopath.

And there is a difference...

There's a big debate within psychology right now about whether a "psychopath" and a "sociopath" are different, and if so, how. It's all fairly theoretical at this point, and the APA, ICD, and DSM officially regard them as synonyms. When I say "sociopath," I'm referring to a sufferer of antisocial personality disorder, which is the closest official diagnosis for a psychopath. Either way, neither proposed symptomology meets the legal insanity criteria.
 
From The Jokers mannerisms and speech patterns he almost seems to be schizophrenic. It's like he is one man but has different people inside him. Like a man possessed by a legion of demons.
 
From The Jokers mannerisms and speech patterns he almost seems to be schizophrenic. It's like he is one man but has different people inside him. Like a man possessed by a legion of demons.

If you mean "different personalities," that's not schizophrenia - that's dissociative identity disorder, aka multiple personality disorder. If you mean voices telling him what to do, that's schizophrenia. I don't see any specific evidence that he has multiple personalities, but I guess anything is possible. An untreated schizophrenic would never be able to be that calculated, poised, calm, and coherent, however, if you look at the symptoms.
 
I have to disagree. I have a psychology background, yes, but I'm approaching this from a criminal law standpoint. Everything I said about the M'Naghten rules is straight out of criminal law books and court cases. I am persistent in saying that he isn't legally insane, yes, because the closest thing to a "disorder" he has is a possible sociopathic diagnosis, which has been categorically and flatly refused by the courts as failing to meet the standard of insanity. Whether a defense attorney could get him off is a separate issue. I'm not talking about verdict probabilities, I'm only looking at the legal definitions of insanity and applying them to a fictional character. This isn't a case where he's schizophrenic, dissociative identity, etc and the defense attorney is arguing x and the prosecutor is arguing y - he doesn't a mental disorder that would be legally eligible for insanity. So I'm not sure how that analogy applies. If you think he meets the M'Naghten or another set of criteria for legal insanity, I'd love to hear your perspective, but I think I've been fairly objective here in presenting a factual assessment. We're talking more about a Ted Bundy type here (someone whose mental disorder (antisocial personality disorder) doesn't meet the legal insanity criteria) than an Andrea Yates (someone whose mental disorder (psychosis, not otherwise specified, and post-partum depression) might.

Well then you should realize that there is no definitive answer in law. There's only an answer that's as good as the facts, your evidence, and how well you craft your case.

As far as giving my opinion even I don't have the hubris to claim I know the outcome of a legal insanity test of the Joker when I don't know the entire facts, charge, jurisdiction, etc. I leave that kind of arrogance to the criminal psychology "experts." I will say one thing though, if Joker was my client and he was charged with murder you better be damn sure that using the defense of insanity will be one of my many litigation goals.
 
It's an interesting discussion! I hope I'm not coming off as adversarial at any point here. I understand where you're coming from; IIRC, the Joker has suggested that he and Batman are on another level of reality than everyone else. It's an interesting hypothesis. I think it applies more to the comics than the film, IMHO, because I strongly get the feeling that it's more of a "game" to him in TDK than it is "make-believe." What you're suggesting - that he's not able to recognize that his acts are real - could muddy the waters and give rise to questions about how crazy he is from a non-medical/legal standpoint. It's ultimately still not legal insanity at this point in time, however, because the current insanity "tests" don't have any criteria that would include that defense. The closest thing I can think of to what you're suggesting is depersonalization/derealization, which quite a few criminals have exhibited to some extent, but not received an not-guilty-by-reason-of-insanity verdict for before. A lot of the Nazis claimed that they lost touch with a sense of self and had a distorted sense of reality, which is probably true to an extent, but that in itself hasn't been medically or legally held to constitute insanity. At this point in time, where the law is concerned, if you don't have a physical brain disorder, know that your actions will cause a death/rape/whatever, and know that it's legally a crime, you are legally sane, even if you claim it took place in an alternate/fictional reality.

I've heard The Joker's mental state described as an extreme case of Solipsism Syndrome, a state of mind where the individual comes to believe that they exist solely in a dream like world. I wouldn't describe it as such simply because I don't think a simple predefinition works for him. His mental state is very complex. The way I see it: The Joker is a man who, due to some sort of traumas in his life, retreated into his own mind to insulate himself from the horrors of reality. He still receives information from and interacts with reality, but not like the rest of us. He's like a man reading a book, or an actor on a stage playing a part. He's detached from it. Because of this, he doesn't absorb sensory input in the same way. He just takes it all in, at once, like someone looking at a work of fiction from the natural outsider's perspective. He goes with the flow of said information, adapting himself to every situation and his thoughts on every situation as he sees fit, like an actor improvising. This goes to explain the many inconsistencies in his character. While everything he experiences is real to him in the sense that it has meaning to him, he doesn't feel like it's actually reality. It has meaning like your favorite book has meaning. He is "super sane" largely in the sense that he's on the outside of reality looking in. He understands more about reality than most people because, to him, it's just like reading the works of a fictional universe. He understands the concepts of what he does, but he doesn't understand that they're actually happening in ways that matter.

I also think that, while he simply does as he pleases because, as I said, the world doesn't have the same meaning to him, and he shifts in and out of roles as the situation warrants, I think the reason he almost always sticks to villainous roles is due to his fascination with Batman, who he sees as the ultimate straight man. If Batman were a homicidal monster, The Joker may find himself compelled to take on more heroic roles.

As for the legality of all of this, I do think this interpretation of his psychology does at least raise enough questions to make the insanity plea a possibility, no matter how slim that possibility is.
 
Well then you should realize that there is no definitive answer in law. There's only an answer that's as good as the facts, your evidence, and how well you craft your case.

As far as giving my opinion even I don't have the hubris to claim I know the outcome of a legal insanity test of the Joker when I don't know the entire facts, charge, jurisdiction, etc. I leave that kind of arrogance to the criminal psychology "experts." I will say one thing though, if Joker was my client and he was charged with murder you better be damn sure that using the defense of insanity will be one of my many litigation goals.

Again, I'm not assessing verdict probability. I'm saying, from a strict reading of the insanity tests defined by the law, he isn't legally insane. Could you convince a jury to believe that he was? Possibly, but a jury verdict in itself does not rewrite law. If I were the Joker, I would feign an overt psychosis like schizophrenia rather than be the 900th person to fail in an attempt to claim sociopathy as a defense. I'm not sure why you're bringing arrogance into this at all. Why does disagreeing with you mean someone's arrogant? I certainly wouldn't make that judgment of you for disagreeing with me.
 
Again, I'm not assessing verdict probability. I'm saying, from a strict reading of the insanity tests defined by the law, he isn't legally insane. Could you convince a jury to believe that he was? Possibly, but a jury verdict in itself does not rewrite law. If I were the Joker, I would feign an overt psychosis like schizophrenia rather than be the 900th person to fail in an attempt to claim sociopathy as a defense. I'm not sure why you're bringing arrogance into this at all. Why does disagreeing with you mean someone's arrogant? I certainly wouldn't make that judgment of you for disagreeing with me.

The point I'm making is that there is no definitive answer b/c the legal test for insanity is an issue that gets litigated since its fact based. So to say he's definitely sane b/c he does not meet the legal test for insanity simply based on what you saw in the film without having a psychological assessment, history, drug test, etc. is hubris.

I'm not saying you are wrong. I'm merely pointing out that for every expert who says Joker is not legally insane there is an expert who says he is legally insane. This is how these cases play out.
 
I've heard The Joker's mental state described as an extreme case of Solipsism Syndrome, a state of mind where the individual comes to believe that they exist solely in a dream like world. I wouldn't describe it as such simply because I don't think a simple predefinition works for him. His mental state is very complex. The way I see it: The Joker is a man who, due to some sort of traumas in his life, retreated into his own mind to insulate himself from the horrors of reality. He still receives information from and interacts with reality, but not like the rest of us. He's like a man reading a book, or an actor on a stage playing a part. He's detached from it. Because of this, he doesn't absorb sensory input in the same way. He just takes it all in, at once, like someone looking at a work of fiction from the natural outsider's perspective. He goes with the flow of said information, adapting himself to every situation and his thoughts on every situation as he sees fit, like an actor improvising. This goes to explain the many inconsistencies in his character. While everything he experiences is real to him in the sense that it has meaning to him, he doesn't feel like it's actually reality. It has meaning like your favorite book has meaning. He is "super sane" largely in the sense that he's on the outside of reality looking in. He understands more about reality than most people because, to him, it's just like reading the works of a fictional universe. He understands the concepts of what he does, but he doesn't understand that they're actually happening in ways that matter.

I would point out that "Solipsism Syndrome" isn't a recognized mental disorder - the phrase has been coined from the philosophy term a couple of times in NASA material, but that's it. It isn't accepted/known within psychology or psychiatry, let alone in the DSM. I'd never heard of it until I saw the wikipedia page a few months back, and I haven't been able to find a single reputable professional source since. If a state of mind like that DID come to be accepted within the psychiatric community and included in a diagnostic manual, things would be a little more complex. That's mostly the reason I said "as of now" and "at this time," because the diagnostic manuals are updated on occasion. It's entirely possible that a state of mind like that could be given diagnostic criteria, if it can be proven to exist in the population at large beyond astronauts and studied sufficiently.

As for the legality of all of this, I do think this interpretation of his psychology does at least raise enough questions to make the insanity plea a possibility, no matter how slim that possibility is.

Absolutely, I didn't mean to imply it wasn't possible. I don't even necessarily imply that a jury couldn't buy it, considering how prevalent jury nullification is. I personally don't think it meets the legal definition of insanity, but insanity pleas are definitely a possibility when you have someone committing atrocities and giggling in the process. I think you'd have a hard time winning on a mental state like that without it actually being a recognized disorder, but if something like that did make it into the DSM, I could see there being more of a shot.

The point I'm making is that there is no definitive answer b/c the legal test for insanity is an issue that gets litigated since its fact based. So to say he's definitely sane b/c he does not meet the legal test for insanity simply based on what you saw in the film without having a psychological assessment, history, drug test, etc. is hubris.

I didn't say he was "definitely sane." I said, from what we've seen in the film, he doesn't meet the legal tests for insanity. I even said to someone above who suggested "dissociative identity disorder" that, while we haven't seen evidence of it, it's possible, precisely because we don't have all the information. All anyone can speculate on is what's presented on film. All of my comments are in that context, because that's the context of the original post: is he legally insane, within the DK forum. If you thought I was suggesting that there's no chance that there's other information that we don't know about that could lead to him meeting an insanity test, then I apologize, because I didn't mean that at all. I'm only making a judgment on what we've seen.
 
no the joker isnt insane but he seems it and thats what makes him always end up in arkham cause he can beat the systom and make them all think he's crazy when he really is on a whole other level
 
Legal insanity is an affirmative defense meaning you stipulate that you caused the crime but by meeting the test for insanity you didn't have the requisite mens rea to be charged for the crime.

A lot of people here are parroting what the psychologist said on the history channel's pyschology of the Dark Knight. He only explained one test, the irresistible impulse test for insanity. But there are 4 legal insanity tests which vary depending on the jurisdiction. Joker being subject to the M'Naghten test for insanity might have an interesting outcome contrary to the irresistible impulse test .

I guarantee you I have MUCH more legal experience than you. I wasn't parroting anyone.

I ate the M'Naghten Rules for breakfast.
 
I would point out that "Solipsism Syndrome" isn't a recognized mental disorder - the phrase has been coined from the philosophy term a couple of times in NASA material, but that's it. It isn't accepted/known within psychology or psychiatry, let alone in the DSM. I'd never heard of it until I saw the wikipedia page a few months back, and I haven't been able to find a single reputable professional source since. If a state of mind like that DID come to be accepted within the psychiatric community and included in a diagnostic manual, things would be a little more complex. That's mostly the reason I said "as of now" and "at this time," because the diagnostic manuals are updated on occasion. It's entirely possible that a state of mind like that could be given diagnostic criteria, if it can be proven to exist in the population at large beyond astronauts and studied sufficiently.

As I said, I wasn't saying that The Joker exactly has Solipsism Syndrome. I was simply using the term as a point of reference.
 
The Joker very much fits in the profile of a psychopath, and I believe psychopaths are considered legally insane, even though no psychologic treatment has been considered efficient to that particular condition.
 

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