SuBe
Voluntaryist
- Joined
- Dec 22, 2005
- Messages
- 11,897
- Reaction score
- 4
- Points
- 58
First of all, personhood was assigned to blacks all the way back in the Constitution described them as "peoples" in the 3/5 compromise, which is no accident. Legal studies is all about the definition of words basically. Since rights extended to "the people" referring to black people as "people" opened a huge legal can of worms, and they kicked that can down the road until Lincoln came along who was a huge supporter of abolition.
The idea of enslaving people didn't become a "blight along the landscape". Abolitionists were in no way the norm, and slavery was pretty well supported in the North as well. It was the free market that lead them to practice slavery in the first place. Cheap labor. That was the primary motivation. It would've stayed that way if the Government hadn't intervened.
Also segregation existed in the South because people wished to continue that practice and found a legal loophole to still subjugate the society.
How is it "the free market" that kept Slavery in practice when the costs of Slavery and refugee slaves recovery were subsidized by the State? How was it "free market" when the State didn't "protect" the lives and LIBERTY of the slaves themselves? Slavery was an institution completely empowered by Government. How was it that only in the US was Slavery ended by War, yet the rest of the Western World it was not?
I'm not talking about Slavery JUST in the United States, I'm talking about the practice through most of the civilized world.