in what way is some art objectively better? explain.
I personally think shakespeare is far superior to tupac, and likewise kubrick to ratner. but again, it's just subjective. are the people (I'm assuming there are some) who judge tupac to be better than shakespeare wrong? perhaps his methods of communication strike a greater, clearer and louder chord with them than shakespeare does. tupac fans will use their own criteria - maybe clarity, humour (let's face it, shakespeare's comedy, uunlike his drama, hasn't exactly aged well) and relevance - to judge between the two.
if we take two opposing musical enities, for example mozart and the sex pistols. is mozart's work objectively superior? no. his music is certainly more complex, multi-faceted, intelligent and technically accomplished, but that assumes that complexity, multi-facetedness, intelligence and technical accomplishment are irrefutable and eternal qualities that determine worth. what about energy, passion, conciseness and spectacle - the things that have earned the sex pistols a place in musical history (personal note: I think they're ****, but that's beside the point)? it all comes down to criteria and who sets the criteria.
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Originally Posted by JokerNick
arguing about art is like arguing about wether a sunrise or sunset is better, no one's right, no one's wrong.......
no it isn't. evolution is true or untrue entirely independent of what people believe. what matters is how the argument relates to the observable evidence. there is no comparable evidence in art. no one's ever going to find a DNA strand or unearth a set of bones that proves, once and for all, that james joyce is "better" than franz kafka.