At the very least, it's violating her terms of employment. Which would lead to her termination and disbarred from future employment (government = public office).
At the most, the information falls into enemy hands...which is against the law.
That must mean he can never be wrong.
No reasonable prosecutor would bring such a case because there is no violation of the law. You are conveniently ignoring that point. I am calling you foolish because you are simply outright ignoring the fact that requisite elements of a crime are unsatisfied and throwing around legal terms of art in the layperson sense, thus misconstruing both Comey's words and the text of the statute in question.
DJ_KiDDvIcIOUs said:Violating an NDA is not a crime.
"Although there is evidence of potential violations of the statutes regarding the handling of classified information"
Highest levels of classified information were removed from custody of the United States Government and stored and transmitted in an insecure environment. There was a clear violation of the law.
From what I can see, there was no precedent for this which is a horrible excuse. There's no precedent for this because email is relatively new and the world hasn't seen the likes of Hillary Rodham Clinton before. Make a new precedent. Times change.
This isn't some movie embargo NDA. Violating this particular NDA is a crime.
At any rate Chase, you are 150 % wrong when you say there is no need to show intent to get a conviction. If you do not have intent, you have not committed a crime.
Let me simplify, Matt, with a simple yes or no question.
If a person unintentionally commits a crime, are they innocent? Yes or no.
Sorry officer, I did not intend on driving drunk.
You are being willfully ignorant at this point.No, its not a horrible excuse. There is no precedent because the statute has not defined it as a crime. Saying "there is evidence of potential violations that might fall into the statute" is not the equivalent to criminal liability. You cannot punish someone for something that is not statutorily defined. Almost breaking a law is not breaking a law. Getting close enough to breaking the law is not breaking a law. You either break a law or you do not.
No it isn't. Violation of an NDA is never a crime. Fraud, is a crime. Disclosing government secrets is a crime. Violating an NDA is not, under any circumstances, a crime. An NDA is a contract. Violation of a contract subjects someone to civil liability, not criminal.
There's an old joke that every law professor tells. Law school is paying someone $100,000 to teach you how to say "it depends."
So my answer is: it depends.
What law have they unintentionally broken? I need that information to answer your question.
You are being willfully ignorant at this point.
(f) Whoever, being entrusted with or having lawful possession or control of any document, writing, code book, signal book, sketch, photograph, photographic negative, blueprint, plan, map, model, instrument, appliance, note, or information, relating to the national defense, (1) through gross negligence permits the same to be removed from its proper place of custody or delivered to anyone in violation of his trust, or to be lost, stolen, abstracted, or destroyed, or (2) having knowledge that the same has been illegally removed from its proper place of custody or delivered to anyone in violation of its trust, or lost, or stolen, abstracted, or destroyed, and fails to make prompt report of such loss, theft, abstraction, or destruction to his superior officer—
Shall be fined under this title or imprisoned not more than ten years, or both.
This proves her intent. The NDA shows that she was informed and knowledgeable.
The prosecution rests its case.
What? I am impaired and not thinking straight. I clearly would never intentionally drive in this condition.
This is awesome
I admire Matt's patience right now. He's clearly right.
Its like arguing with children who are just repeatedly saying "NUH UH!"
I am licensed to practice law in PA, Ohio, New York, West Virginia, and the District of Columbia, as well as in federal court. But clearly these genuises are right and I am wrong. Oy vey.
You do not read a statute in isolation. You have to read the whole. Subsection F is not satisfied because she lacks knowledge that the material has been delivered to "anyone" --- who is anyone? Well, if you'd find the statutory definitions that pertain to the Espionage Act, you'd know that anyone speaks of foreign actors/bad faith actors seeking to aide foreign governments. The lack of that specific type of third party (who must be actual and apparent, not a hypothetical hacker) makes it so subsection F does not apply. Therefore there is no recklessness standard to be had.
You intended to get drunk knowing that a foreseeable consequence of getting intoxicated could be DUI. Thus, intent is satisfied.
This is where your legalese and "precedent" have you backed into a corner. She signed the NDA. She understood the rules and they were outlined to her. Even the Director of the FBI accuses her actions as not being reasonable. Hillary Rodham Clinton is the anyone. Her IT pro that was not cleared to handled said information was the anyone. Every person that sent classified information to an address ending with clinton.org is the anyone. The Russian phishing emails scattered throughout her inbox was a foreign actor. She jeopardize national security for the sake of convenience. She knew what she was doing. The intent is clear. She signed the policy. This is just another example in a long list of items that show Hillary Clinton is full of **** and doesn't care about anything but satisfying her own ambitions. Laws and rules be damned.
Hillary Clinton intended on breaking the Sensitive Compartmented Information Nondisclosure Agreement knowing that a foreseeable consequence of breaking the security agreement would be breaking the law stated in 18 US Code 793 which is punishable by fine and/or 10 years of imprisonment. Thus, intent is satisfied.
Lex you are just wrong buddy. You can't plug and play with what you think is right because it makes sense to you. The "anyone" has a set parameter.
I can't do this anymore. You are wrong. 100 % wrong. Completely and totally wrong. You are confusing knowledge with intent. You are confusing willful behavior with intent. These are very different concepts. One is a factual question. One is a legal question. Your failure to understand the differences between these distinctions is why you are wrong. But I am done explaining it. Educate yourself, beyond what you want to see. Then we will talk.
I am not 100% wrong.
Matt, you can't say a criminal act requires mens rea to prove guilt and then say it depends two pages later. At that point, you are deciding on whether it was recklessness, negligence, liability, or intentional. You can be convicted without intent, which I already stated. That's why you walked back your assertions to a 'it depends'. United States v. Dotterweich is an example of conviction without intent.
I'm not a lawyer but it doesn't take a law degree to know the law.
Also, it's so funny to see Liberals want convictions of banking and housing industry leaders for causing the Great Recession but then backing Clinton's no charges news. It's the rich and powerful escaping Justice.